Prove that, for all positive integers x and r, the remainder when is divided by
is 1.
This is pretty easy if you interpret it as:
Which, according to the binomial theorem, is:
If we expand this out, then every term except for the first will be divisble by (x-1). The first term is just 1, so the remainder is 1. Nifty, right? I thought so.
Made up number theory problem
Posted by Lord of Lawl at 22:07
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